NUR3020 Week 2 Quiz
NUR3020 Week 2 Quiz
Question: NUR3020 Week 2 Quiz.
Question 1 The nurse educator is preparing an education module for the nursing sta? on the epidermal layer of skin. Which of these statements would be included in the module? The epidermis is:
Answers:
a. Highly vascular.
b.
Thick and tough.
c.
Thin and non-stratified.
d.
Replaced every 4 weeks.
Question
2 The nurse educator is preparing an education module for the nursing sta? on
the dermis The nurse educator is preparing an education module for the nursing
sta? on the dermis layer of skin. Which of these statements would be included in
the module? The dermis:
a. Contains mostly fat cells.
b. Consists mostly of keratin.
c. Is replaced every 4 weeks.
d. Contains sensory receptors.
Question 3 The nurse is examining a patient who tells the
nurse, “I sure sweat a lot, especially on my face and feet but it doesn’t have
an odor.” The nurse knows that this condition could be related to:
Answers: a. Eccrine glands.
b.
Apocrine glands. .
c. Disorder
of the stratum corneum.
d.
Disorder of the stratum germinativum.
Question 4 A newborn infant is in the clinic for a well-baby
checkup. The nurse observes the infant for the possibility of fluid loss
because of which of these factors?
Answers: a. Subcutaneous fat deposits are high in the
newborn.
b.
Sebaceous glands are ov rproductive in the newbo n.
c. The
newborn’s skin is mo pe meable than
that of the adult.
The nurse aware
thatstudythe four areas in the body where lymph nodes are accessible are the:
d. The
amount of vernix caseosa dramatically rises in the newborn.
Question 5 The nurse aware that the four areas in the body
where lymph nodes are accessible are the:
Answers: a. Head, breasts, groin, and abdomen.
b.
Arms, b asts, inguinal area, and legs.
c. He
d nd neck, arms, breasts, and axillae.
. Head
and neck, arms, inguinal area, and axillae.
Question 6 A patient’s thyroid gland is enlarged, and the
nurse is preparing to auscultate the thyroid gland for the presence of a bruit.
A bruit is a __________ sound that is heard best with the __________ of the
stethoscope.
a. Low gurgling; diaphragm
b. Loud, whooshing, blowing; bell
c. Soft, whooshing, pulsatile; bell
d. High-pitched tinkling; diaphragm
Question 7 The nurse
is testing a patient’s visual accommodation, which refers to which action?
Pupillary constriction when looking at a near object
b. Pupillary dilation when looking at a far object
c. Changes in peripheral vision in response to light
d. Involuntary blinking in the presence of bright light
Question 8 A patient has a normal pupillary light reflex.
The nurse recognizes that this reflex indicates that:
Answers: a. The eyes converge to focus on the light.
b.
Light is reflected at the same spot in both eyes.
c. The
eye focuses the image in the center of the pupil.
d. Constriction
of both pupils occurs in resp nse to bright light.
Question 9 A mother asks when her newborn infant’s eyesight
will be developed. The nurse shoul
Answers: a. “Vi ion is not totally developed until 2 years
of age.”
b. “Infants
develop the ability to focus on an object at approximately 8 months of share
c.“By
approximately 3 months of age, infants develop more coordinated eye movements
and can fixate on an object.”
. “Most
infants have uncoordinated eye movements for the first year of life.”
Question 10 The nurse is reviewing in age-related changes in
the eye for a class. Which of these physiologic changes is responsible for
presbyopia?
Answers: a.
Degeneration of the cornea
b. Loss of lens elasticity
c. Decreased adaptation to darkness
d. Decreased distance vision abilities
Question 11 Which of these assessment findings would the
nurse expect to see when examining the eyes of a black patient?
Answers: a. Increased night vision
b. Dark
retinal background
c.
Increased photosensitivity
d.
Narrowed palpebral fissures
Question 12When performing an otoscopic examination of a
5-year-old child with a history of chronic ear infections, the nurse sees that
his right tympanic membrane is amber -yellow in color and that air bubbles are
visible behind the tympanic membrane. The child reports occasional hearing loss
and a popping sound with swallowing. The preliminary analysis based on this was
information is that the child:
Answers: a. Most likely has serous otitis media.
b. Has
an acute purulent otitis media.
c. Has
evidence of a resolving cholesteat
d. Is
experiencing the early stag of
perforation.
Question 13 The nurse
needs to pull the portion of the ear that consists of movable cartilage and
skin down and back when administering eardrops. This portion of the ear is
called the:
Answers: a. Auricle.
b.
Concha.
c.
Outer meatus.
Question 14The nurse is examining shared a patient’s ears
and notices cerumen in the external canal. Which of these statements about cerumen is correct?
Answers: a. Sticky honey-colored cerumen is a sign of
infection.
b. The presence of cerumen is indicative of poor hygiene.
c. The purpose of cerumen is to protect and lubricate the
ear.
d. Cerumen is necessary for transmitting sound through the
auditory canal.
Question 15 When examining the ear with an otoscope, the
nurse notes that the tympanic membrane should appear:
a. Light pink with a slight bulge.
b. Pearly gray and slightly concave.
c. Pulled in at the base of the cone of light.
d. Whitish with a small fleck of light in the superior
portion.
Question 16 The nurse is reviewing the structures of the
ear. Which of these statements concerning the eustachian tube is true?
Answers: a. The eustachian tube is responsible for the
production of cerumen.
b. It
remains open except when swallowing or yawning. was
c.The
eustachian tube allows passage of air between the middle and out ar.
d. It
helps equalize air pressure on both sides of the tympanic membrane.
Question 17 A patient with a middle ear infection asks the
nurse, “What does the middle ear do?” The nurse responds by telling the patient
that the middle ear functions to:
Answers: a. Maintain balance.
b. Interpret
so nds as they enter the ear.
c.
Conduct vibrations of sounds to the inner ear.
d.
Increase amplitude of sound for the inner ear to function.
Question 18 The
primary purpose of the ciliated mucous membrane in the nose is to:
a . Warm the inhaled air.
b. Filter out dust and bacteria.
c. Filter coarse particles from inhaled air.
d. Facilitate the movement of air through the nares.
/orders/class.waldenu.edu/webapps/assessment/review/review.jsp?attempt_id=_58210205_1&course_id=_16563308_1&content_id=_51756529_1&return_content=1&step=
6/9/19, 3(50 AM
Question 19 The
projections in the nasal cavity that increase the surface area are called the:
Answers: a. Meatus.
b. Septum.
c. Turbinates.
d. Kiesselbach
plexus.
Question 20 The nurse is reviewing the development of the
newborn infant. Regarding the sinuses, which statement is true in relation to a
newborn infant?
Answers: a. Sphenoid sinuses are full size at birth.
b. Maxillary sinuses reach full size after puberty. was
c. Frontal sinuses are fairly well developed at birth.
d. Maxillary and ethmoid sinuses are the only sinuses
present at birth.
Question 21The tissue that connects the tongue to the floor
of the mouth is the:
Answers: a. Uvula.
b. Palate.
c. Papillae.
d. Frenulum.
Question 22 The salivary gland that study is the largest and
located in the cheek in front of the ear is the________ gland.
a. Parotid
b. Stensen’s
c. Sublingu
. Submandibular
Question 23 In assessing the tonsils of a 30 year old, the
nurse notices that they are involuted, granular in appearance, and appear to
have deep crypts. What is correct response to these findings?
Answers: a. Refer the patient to a throat specialist.
b. No response is needed; this appearance is normal for the
tonsils.
c. Continue with the assessment, looking for any other
abnormal findings.
d.Obtain a throat culture on the patient for possible
streptococcal (strep)infection.
Question 24 The nurse is obtaining a health history on a
3-month-old infant. During the interview, the mother states, “I think she is
getting her first tooth because she has started drooling a lot.”
The nurse’s best response would be:
Answers: a. “You’re right, drooling is usually a sign of the
first tooth.”
b. “It
would be unusual for a 3 month old to be getting her first tooth.”
c.
“This could be the sign of a problem with the salivary glands.” .com
Question 25 The nurse is assessing an 80-year-old patient.
Which of these findings would be expected for this patient?
Answers: a. Hypertrophy of the gums
b.
Increased production of saliva
c.
Decreased ability to identify odors
d.
Finer and less prominent NASA
Question 1 The nurse educator is preparing an education module for the nursing sta? on the epidermal layer of skin. Which of these statements would be included in the module? The epidermis is:
Answers:
a. Highly vascular.
b.
Thick and tough.
c.
Thin and non-stratified.
d.
Replaced every 4 weeks.
Question
2 The nurse educator is preparing an education module for the nursing sta? on
the dermis The nurse educator is preparing an education module for the nursing
sta? on the dermis layer of skin. Which of these statements would be included in
the module? The dermis:
a. Contains mostly fat cells.
b. Consists mostly of keratin.
c. Is replaced every 4 weeks.
d. Contains sensory receptors.
Question 3 The nurse is examining a patient who tells the
nurse, “I sure sweat a lot, especially on my face and feet but it doesn’t have
an odor.” The nurse knows that this condition could be related to:
Answers: a. Eccrine glands.
b.
Apocrine glands. .
c. Disorder
of the stratum corneum.
d.
Disorder of the stratum germinativum.
Question 4 A newborn infant is in the clinic for a well-baby
checkup. The nurse observes the infant for the possibility of fluid loss
because of which of these factors?
Answers: a. Subcutaneous fat deposits are high in the
newborn.
b.
Sebaceous glands are ov rproductive in the newbo n.
c. The
newborn’s skin is mo pe meable than
that of the adult.
The nurse aware
thatstudythe four areas in the body where lymph nodes are accessible are the:
d. The
amount of vernix caseosa dramatically rises in the newborn.
Question 5 The nurse aware that the four areas in the body
where lymph nodes are accessible are the:
Answers: a. Head, breasts, groin, and abdomen.
b.
Arms, b asts, inguinal area, and legs.
c. He
d nd neck, arms, breasts, and axillae.
. Head
and neck, arms, inguinal area, and axillae.
Question 6 A patient’s thyroid gland is enlarged, and the
nurse is preparing to auscultate the thyroid gland for the presence of a bruit.
A bruit is a __________ sound that is heard best with the __________ of the
stethoscope.
a. Low gurgling; diaphragm
b. Loud, whooshing, blowing; bell
c. Soft, whooshing, pulsatile; bell
d. High-pitched tinkling; diaphragm
Question 7 The nurse
is testing a patient’s visual accommodation, which refers to which action?
Pupillary constriction when looking at a near object
b. Pupillary dilation when looking at a far object
c. Changes in peripheral vision in response to light
d. Involuntary blinking in the presence of bright light
Question 8 A patient has a normal pupillary light reflex.
The nurse recognizes that this reflex indicates that:
Answers: a. The eyes converge to focus on the light.
b.
Light is reflected at the same spot in both eyes.
c. The
eye focuses the image in the center of the pupil.
d. Constriction
of both pupils occurs in resp nse to bright light.
Question 9 A mother asks when her newborn infant’s eyesight
will be developed. The nurse shoul
Answers: a. “Vi ion is not totally developed until 2 years
of age.”
b. “Infants
develop the ability to focus on an object at approximately 8 months of share
c.“By
approximately 3 months of age, infants develop more coordinated eye movements
and can fixate on an object.”
. “Most
infants have uncoordinated eye movements for the first year of life.”
Question 10 The nurse is reviewing in age-related changes in
the eye for a class. Which of these physiologic changes is responsible for
presbyopia?
Answers: a.
Degeneration of the cornea
b. Loss of lens elasticity
c. Decreased adaptation to darkness
d. Decreased distance vision abilities
Question 11 Which of these assessment findings would the
nurse expect to see when examining the eyes of a black patient?
Answers: a. Increased night vision
b. Dark
retinal background
c.
Increased photosensitivity
d.
Narrowed palpebral fissures
Question 12When performing an otoscopic examination of a
5-year-old child with a history of chronic ear infections, the nurse sees that
his right tympanic membrane is amber -yellow in color and that air bubbles are
visible behind the tympanic membrane. The child reports occasional hearing loss
and a popping sound with swallowing. The preliminary analysis based on this was
information is that the child:
Answers: a. Most likely has serous otitis media.
b. Has
an acute purulent otitis media.
c. Has
evidence of a resolving cholesteat
d. Is
experiencing the early stag of
perforation.
Question 13 The nurse
needs to pull the portion of the ear that consists of movable cartilage and
skin down and back when administering eardrops. This portion of the ear is
called the:
Answers: a. Auricle.
b.
Concha.
c.
Outer meatus.
Question 14The nurse is examining shared a patient’s ears
and notices cerumen in the external canal. Which of these statements about cerumen is correct?
Answers: a. Sticky honey-colored cerumen is a sign of
infection.
b. The presence of cerumen is indicative of poor hygiene.
c. The purpose of cerumen is to protect and lubricate the
ear.
d. Cerumen is necessary for transmitting sound through the
auditory canal.
Question 15 When examining the ear with an otoscope, the
nurse notes that the tympanic membrane should appear:
a. Light pink with a slight bulge.
b. Pearly gray and slightly concave.
c. Pulled in at the base of the cone of light.
d. Whitish with a small fleck of light in the superior
portion.
Question 16 The nurse is reviewing the structures of the
ear. Which of these statements concerning the eustachian tube is true?
Answers: a. The eustachian tube is responsible for the
production of cerumen.
b. It
remains open except when swallowing or yawning. was
c.The
eustachian tube allows passage of air between the middle and out ar.
d. It
helps equalize air pressure on both sides of the tympanic membrane.
Question 17 A patient with a middle ear infection asks the
nurse, “What does the middle ear do?” The nurse responds by telling the patient
that the middle ear functions to:
Answers: a. Maintain balance.
b. Interpret
so nds as they enter the ear.
c.
Conduct vibrations of sounds to the inner ear.
d.
Increase amplitude of sound for the inner ear to function.
Question 18 The
primary purpose of the ciliated mucous membrane in the nose is to:
a . Warm the inhaled air.
b. Filter out dust and bacteria.
c. Filter coarse particles from inhaled air.
d. Facilitate the movement of air through the nares.
/orders/class.waldenu.edu/webapps/assessment/review/review.jsp?attempt_id=_58210205_1&course_id=_16563308_1&content_id=_51756529_1&return_content=1&step=
6/9/19, 3(50 AM
Question 19 The
projections in the nasal cavity that increase the surface area are called the:
Answers: a. Meatus.
b. Septum.
c. Turbinates.
d. Kiesselbach
plexus.
Question 20 The nurse is reviewing the development of the
newborn infant. Regarding the sinuses, which statement is true in relation to a
newborn infant?
Answers: a. Sphenoid sinuses are full size at birth.
b. Maxillary sinuses reach full size after puberty. was
c. Frontal sinuses are fairly well developed at birth.
d. Maxillary and ethmoid sinuses are the only sinuses
present at birth.
Question 21The tissue that connects the tongue to the floor
of the mouth is the:
Answers: a. Uvula.
b. Palate.
c. Papillae.
d. Frenulum.
Question 22 The salivary gland that study is the largest and
located in the cheek in front of the ear is the________ gland.
a. Parotid
b. Stensen’s
c. Sublingu
. Submandibular
Question 23 In assessing the tonsils of a 30 year old, the
nurse notices that they are involuted, granular in appearance, and appear to
have deep crypts. What is correct response to these findings?
Answers: a. Refer the patient to a throat specialist.
b. No response is needed; this appearance is normal for the
tonsils.
c. Continue with the assessment, looking for any other
abnormal findings.
d.Obtain a throat culture on the patient for possible
streptococcal (strep)infection.
Question 24 The nurse is obtaining a health history on a
3-month-old infant. During the interview, the mother states, “I think she is
getting her first tooth because she has started drooling a lot.”
The nurse’s best response would be:
Answers: a. “You’re right, drooling is usually a sign of the
first tooth.”
b. “It
would be unusual for a 3 month old to be getting her first tooth.”
c.
“This could be the sign of a problem with the salivary glands.” .com
Question 25 The nurse is assessing an 80-year-old patient.
Which of these findings would be expected for this patient?
Answers: a. Hypertrophy of the gums
b.
Increased production of saliva
c.
Decreased ability to identify odors
d.
Finer and less prominent NASA
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